@nightngale1998 and others - I'm curious if anyone has had any success/knows of any difference between Ranitidine (Zantac) and Famotidine (Pepcid)?

I have been on 40mg of Pantoprazole (Protonix), another Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI) since 2011 when a barium swallow showed a small sliding hiatal hernia while investigating the cause of persistent nausea. I recently have been suffering from some chronic health issues since June 2018, still largely undiagnosed, but one of the findings was a low Vitamin B12 (interestingly, I had taken a B12 supplement in August for a month when it was found borderline low at that time, yet my recent reading was even lower than it was then) and a Vitamin D deficiency. One of my doctors suggested Vitamin B12 shots as opposed to the oral supplement because my Pantoprazole could be preventing me from absorbing the vitamins (might be something to ask about @mariannamum ). In return, I asked her if discontinuing the Pantoprazole was something to consider and what the alternative(s) might be (whenever I would forget to take the Pantoprazole, I inevitably ended up with nausea later that day). She said that many people are prescribed PPIs because they only require being taken once daily; the alternative would be to take Zantac or Pepcid twice daily instead. She said a "tapering" schedule for the Pantoprazole was not needed; replacing it with the Zantac/Pepcid would work immediately.

Unfortunately, I've switched to 20mg of Famotidine (Pepcid) twice daily since Wednesday, and suffered from nausea daily (not life-altering, but certainly not pleasant). On the flip side (although possibly unconnected), I had my second B12 shot and third Vitamin D prescription dose on Wednesday, and have felt a marked increase in energy/decrease in the brain fog since then. I don't know for sure it's because it was better absorbed without the PPI -- it could just be I needed additional doses before it started working -- but it's a possibility.

So my question is, has anyone had success using Zantac instead of Pepcid or are they essentially the same thing?

As a side note, I had an upper endoscopy two months ago that found linear gastropathy/gastritis (although no bleeding or ulcers), despite having been on the PPI for seven years; and the gastroenterologist who performed it said he hadn't seen any evidence of the hiatal hernia. Not sure if/how any of that fits in to all this, but thought I'd mention it.

Any suggestions/insight appreciated; thanks!