← Return to Bone turnover markers (CTX and P1NP): do you have a baseline?

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@normahorn

Keep it simple. Divide CTX by PINP. For you that number is 9.08 which is essentially equal to the "magic" 10:1 ratio. If you blindly accept these ratios, my value of 4.2 should mean I do not have osteoporosis but I do.

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Replies to "Keep it simple. Divide CTX by PINP. For you that number is 9.08 which is essentially..."

@normahorn your btms are puzzling to say the least. One thought, if you have the luxury of time before any treatments, repeat dexa yearly to get a feel for annual rate of bone loss. Personally I'd repeat btms in 6 months just to see any possible variation.

Has your endo done exhaustive exams or tests to exclude secondary causes (at this point I'm sure you went thru lots of testing)? Did you in the past (or present) have meds or disease states that would adversely affect bone health? Things happened in the past could've affected bone density but the factor(s) may no longer be present, such as calcium intake/diet, sedentary life style, a particular rx or disease state.

Even everything appears to be good, our bones go downhill as we age, just with a different speed for each person. A person I know who has been conscious with health throughout her life, had her btms and dexa followed for years. Her btms looking good, dexa "deteriotes" at a normal speed as a postmenopausal woman. Now in her mid 70s, she has op according to criteria of T score.

Thanks
But confused since mine is 9.08 and I’m close to 10
How would your 4.2 seem like you don’t have osteoporosis but do ?

Shouldn’t we be close to 10?